 All about flooble | fun stuff | Get a free chatterbox | Free JavaScript | Avatars  perplexus dot info  Quick integral (Posted on 2019-07-16) Given f(x) = sin2(sin x) + cos2(cos x). Find the integral of f(x) from 0 to π/2.

 No Solution Yet Submitted by Danish Ahmed Khan Rating: 2.0000 (1 votes) Comments: ( Back to comment list | You must be logged in to post comments.) solution Comment 1 of 1
The curve reaches a minimum at x=0 and a maximum at x=pi/2. Assuming that the mean value is midway between the values at these two points:

Mean = (0 + cos((1))^2 + (sin(1))^2 + (cos(0))^2)/2
= (0 + 1 + 1)/2
= 1

Integral = 1 * pi/2 = pi/2.

Do we have a proof that the curve is symmetrical about the horizontal line y = 1, that is, the mean between the maximum and the minimum? Well, the function evaluated at pi/4+.2 is 1.2725591 and at pi/4-.2 is .7274409, averaging 1.  There's no reason to think choices of the delta other than .2 would not also verify the symmetry of the curve.

 Posted by Charlie on 2019-07-16 10:14:01 Please log in:

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