Given N possibly overlapping sets, give formulas that specify, using intersections and complements of the given sets, N disjoint sets with the same union as the original N sets. The sets that result are to be the same as the given sets in the case where the given sets are already disjoint.

Why not just have one set be the union of all the sets and then N-1 empty sets?

Is there a way to get a union using only intesections and compliments?

I guess this doesn't fit the last stipulation: "The sets that result are to be the same as the given sets in the case where the given sets are already disjoint."

-Jer

Posted by Jer on 2004-04-05 09:40:42