Suppose I told you that the Goldbach conjecture is one of those. (The Goldbach conjecture supposes that every even integer number can be expressed as the sum of two odd primes.)

Is that logically possible? (And, no, I haven't proved it!)

That's the ancient argument: "Is 1 a prime, or isn't it?" If it is, then the Goldbach onjecture applies to all even numbers; if it isn't, you should start at 4.

Posted by e.g. on 2004-08-27 20:56:01