Take any odd number and square it. It will invariably be a multiple of 8 plus 1. So (odd)^2=8n+1 where n is an integer. Show why this is always so. Also show what the pattern for n is.
Why does it still say by the problem that there is no solution posted yet? I thought I already put it up. Was there something wrong with it or something?
Posted by martyn
on 2002-10-06 17:19:53