The Fibonacci sequence goes F(0)=0, F(1)=1, and for n>1, F(n)=F(n-1)+F(n-2).

Show that for every positive integer m there exists an integer n>0 such that m divides F(n).

(In reply to re(3): Proof--Quick fix by armando)

What do you mean by "my question"?

I realise now that each letter in Tristan's proof refers to a pair of consecutive numbers.

Posted by Nick Hobson on 2005-06-13 13:26:20