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Fibonacci Lore (Posted on 2005-06-10) Difficulty: 4 of 5
The Fibonacci sequence goes F(0)=0, F(1)=1, and for n>1, F(n)=F(n-1)+F(n-2).

Show that for every positive integer m there exists an integer n>0 such that m divides F(n).

  Submitted by McWorter    
Rating: 4.0000 (3 votes)
Solution: (Hide)
Consider the remainders of consecutive pairs of Fibonacci numbers when divided by m. Since there are m remainders, there are m^2 distinct pairs of remainders. Hence, for some i<j, the remainders of the pair (F(i),F(i+1)) and the the remainders of the pair (F(j),F(j+1)) must be the same pair. That is, the remainders of F(i) and F(j) are the same and the remainders of F(i+1) and F(j+1) are the same.

But then the remainders of F(i-1) and F(j-1) are the same because

F(i-1)=F(i+1)-F(i) and

F(j-1)=F(j+1)-F(j),

have the same remainder when divided by m. Continuing, F(i-2) has the same remainder as F(j-2), etc. Thus 0=F(0)=F(i-i) has the same remainder as F(j-i); and so F(j-i) is divisible by m.

(According to the unlimited precision software GAP, 2001 divides the 860th term of the Fibonacci sequence but does not divide any earlier term after the first term.)

Comments: ( You must be logged in to post comments.)
  Subject Author Date
How to setup Microsoft Office for free?brendon jon2020-01-07 04:11:38
re(4): Proof--Quick fixNick Hobson2005-06-13 13:26:20
re(3): Proof--Quick fixarmando2005-06-13 12:53:45
re(4): Proof--Quick fixMcWorter2005-06-13 02:16:54
re(4): Proof--Quick fixSteve Herman2005-06-12 23:38:56
SolutionModulo solutionNick Hobson2005-06-12 22:39:38
re(3): Proof--Quick fixTristan2005-06-12 19:30:46
Some Thoughtsre(2): Proof--Quick fixNick Hobson2005-06-11 21:47:44
re(2): Proof--Quick fix -- little quibbleMcWorter2005-06-11 21:46:32
re: Proof--Quick fixTristan2005-06-11 21:33:01
SolutionProofTristan2005-06-11 21:14:07
re(2): CluelessSteve Herman2005-06-11 19:01:30
re: CluelessMcWorter2005-06-11 15:48:04
Here's a good cluePenny2005-06-11 14:18:08
CluelessSteve Herman2005-06-11 12:21:05
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