(In reply to
re(5): Part I  notation by Richard)
Richard, you have a point. My first post should have been accompanied by some kind of explanation.
Arbitrary disruption was not my intent. I simply noticed that the problem had been posted on the site for a few hours already, without eliciting a single comment.
My first post was intended to 1) let Josh70679 know that someone was at least looking at his problem; 2) provide a starting point for anyone who actually understands padic valuation and padic topology (I don't understand well enough to come up with a solution on my own).
I could have included the above explanation along with my post.

Posted by Mindrod
on 20060205 14:06:08 