be a one-to-one correspondence
of the points in a plane
Prove or disprove the following statement:
"If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines."
If I could prove that the inverse of f mapped circles to circles, then I could easily prove that f maps lines to lines. Alas, I cannot.
Posted by Bractals
on 2006-11-15 18:48:19