Let
f be a
onetoone correspondence of the points in a
plane.
Prove or disprove the following statement:
"If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines."
(In reply to
re(6): Full Proof by Joel)
Thanks Joel. I was able to follow the proof easily.
Question: Is "If f maps circles to circles, then the inverse of f maps circles to circles" equivalent to "If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines"?
If it is, then would it have been easier or harder to prove?
Edited on December 19, 2006, 3:44 am
Edited on December 19, 2006, 3:11 pm

Posted by Bractals
on 20061219 00:49:38 