Gambler's triangulation (Posted on 2010-03-18)

	Submitted by Ady TZIDON
Rating: 3.5000 (2 votes)
Solution:	(Hide)
ANSWER: 37/72 SOLUTION: Denote this probability by p, and let the three numbers that come up be x, y, and z. We will calculate 1-p instead: 1-p is the probability that x >=(y+z); y >=(z+x), or z>=( x+y). Since these events are mutually exclusive, 1-p is just 3 times the probability that x >=(y+z). This happens with probability (0+1+3+6+10+15)/216 = 35/216, so the answer is (1-P)=3*35/216 =35/72. Therefore P= 37/72.

	Subject	Author	Date
	Including degenerates	Jer	2010-03-19 14:26:56
	re(5): Solution/zero area triangle	Ady TZIDON	2010-03-19 13:28:03
	re(4): Solution	Charlie	2010-03-19 10:59:55
	re(3): Solution	Ady TZIDON	2010-03-19 04:26:27
	re(2): Solution	Dej Mar	2010-03-19 04:07:19
	re: Solution	Ady TZIDON	2010-03-18 19:53:34
	Solution	Dej Mar	2010-03-18 17:57:47
	solution	Charlie	2010-03-18 15:33:46
	General geometric solution	Jer	2010-03-18 14:18:10