P is a polynomial of degree 6. M and N are two real numbers with 0 < M < N.
Given that:
 P(M) = P(M), and:
 P(N) = P(N)
 P’(0) = 0
Does the relationship P(x) = P(x) hold for all nonzero real values of x?
If so, prove it.
If not, provide a counterexample.
(In reply to
re: Counterexample by Steve Herman)
I think you mean the third condition rather than the first.

Posted by Charlie
on 20150513 11:20:47 