(In reply to
re(4): Solution (I think !) by Penny)
Point A = .1
Point B = .55
0 <.1<.5
.5<.55<1
Point C = .9
0<.1<.333...
.333...<.55<.666...
.666...<.9<1
Point D = .3
0<.1<.25
.25<.3<.5
.5<.55<.75
.75<.9<1
Point E = .7
0<.1<.2
.2<.3<.4
.4<.55<.6
.6<.7<.8
.8<.9<1
Point F = .4
0<.1<.1666...
.1666<.3<.333...
.333...<.4<.5
.5<.55<.666...
.666...<.7<.8333...
.8333...<.9<1
I found this by "working backward": I started with six points correctly placed and eliminated one leaving the other five correctly placed for the previous step, etc.
Actually I was working on an indirect proof of Penny's theory and expected to be unable to find a proper point C to complete a counter-example.
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Posted by TomM
on 2004-01-17 13:03:34 |