A little disconcertingly I generated the data of a triangle with integral sides in a spreadsheet. The area calculation suggested that it had zero area.
Knowing there was an obvious contradiction I wrote a computer listing to see if there were others which fitted this situation, and yes, there was an infinite number.
Clearly I am doing something wrong, explain.
(In reply to
re: most likely way by brianjn)
Charlie, I don't have the spreadsheet saved so I don't know what lead me to propose this.
I have found my listing and looking at it and my results I did have triangular areas for some. At the time I was playing with Heron's area of triangle formula when I got what was, at the time an apparent contradiction.
Smack my knuckles, but I didn't look at any of the side values being half-perimeter. I did however note that one value could create a "0" multiplier and therefore lead me into this faux pas.
Edited on December 31, 2009, 12:02 am
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Posted by brianjn
on 2009-12-30 23:52:06 |