Start with a bag containing 5 white beans. Randomly draw one at a time employing the following rule:
If the bean is white, color it black and put it back in the bag;
If the bean is black, keep it out.
What is the probability that at some point there will be a single white bean in the bag?
Generalize to start with N beans.
Does the probability converge, and if so, to what value?
(In reply to
re(2):Correcting My previous analytical solution by Charlie)
Also, going back to
P(3,3,1)=P(2,4,0)*1
this neglects the + P(2,3,2)*2/5 contribution.
Again, this is as far back as I've analyzed in your synopsis.
PS
P(4,3,0)=P(3,3,1)*1 should be P(4,3,0)=P(3,3,1)*1/4, as the other 3/4 is going to P(4,2,2) as you specify.
Edited on July 15, 2015, 9:47 pm
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Posted by Charlie
on 2015-07-15 21:42:51 |
re(3):Correcting My previous analytical solution
