Is
mm-1 divisible by
(m-1)2 for any integer value of
m greater than 1.
Provide valid reasoning for your answer.
m=2 is a trivial solution<o:p></o:p>
For m>2, m=integer, note that m and m-1 are always relatively
prime.<o:p></o:p>
m^(m-1) = m * m * (m^(m-3)).
If this is to be divisible by (m-1)^2, then the last term must be divisible
by (m-1)^2. But the last term can then
be written as m * m * (m^(m-5)). Again
the new last term must be devisable by (m-1)^2.
Follow this process to it’s logical end and you get two cases:<o:p></o:p>
1) 1) For m = odd, you get to m^(m-(m-2))= m^2, which is
not divisible by (m-1)^2<o:p></o:p>
2) 2) For m = even, you get to m^1=m, which is also
not divisible by (m-1)^2<o:p></o:p>
Therefore I believe m=2 is the only solution.<o:p></o:p>
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Posted by Kenny M
on 2023-03-22 07:56:13 |