"Snake-Eyes" Joe introduced a die of his own into a game of chance.
He was subsequently challenged that the die was biased.
Very
rigorously test to see if there are grounds to substantiate this claim; don't accept just two or three trial runs. Are you able to offer a theoretical model consistent with your findings?
Test "Snake-Eyes" Joe's Die with this simulator which has a run of 60,000 at a time:
| No: | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | Total |
| Scores |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
Note: the data changes with each subsequent mouse-over visitation to the link.
I read all the comments but I have not looked at the code.
Apparently the code (at least originally) was the equivalent of 9 fair rolls, but then every 10th roll, if you get a 1, you don't keep the 1 but instead roll again and accept that new result as the 10th roll.
So the probability of getting a 1 is:
.9*(1/6) + .1*(1/36) = 55/360 = 11/72
which is close to what you get by testing
(assuming the number of rolls, not counting the extra rolls, is a multiple of 10)
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Posted by Larry
on 2023-11-25 10:49:03 |
looks like ....
