Playing five-card stud poker with two friends one night, one of them, Kevin, accidentaly drops one of his cards on the table, the ace of hearts. My other friend, Nick, laughs and says, "I also have at least one ace in my hand." I have no reason not to believe him. Now, I do not have any aces in my hand, but I do have a pair of kings. Which of my friends is more likely to have at least a pair of aces (that is to say, at least one more ace) in his hand?

(In reply to Solution by larry)

This problem makes no sense to me. How can Kevin accidentally drop one of his cards on the table if the cards are suposed to be on the table in five stud poker?.

Kevin could accidentally deal his hole card face-up, but that is not what the problem says. ??.

Also, the frase "I have no reason not to bo believe him" only tells us that the player with two kings does not have three aces. It does not tell us that Nick has indeed at least one ace among his face-up cards.

Posted by ajosin on 2005-03-02 19:18:10