be a one-to-one correspondence
of the points in a plane
Prove or disprove the following statement:
"If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines."
(In reply to Full Proof
Given two distinct points A and B.
Your proof shows that if Y is a point
on Line(f(A),f(B)), then f^(-1)(Y) is
a point on Line(A,B). How do you show
that if X is a point on Line(A,B), then
f(X) is a point on Line(f(A),f(B))?
Posted by Bractals
on 2006-12-15 18:15:42