Let
f be a
onetoone correspondence of the points in a
plane.
Prove or disprove the following statement:
"If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines."
(In reply to
Full Proof by Tristan)
Given two distinct points A and B.
Your proof shows that if Y is a point
on Line(f(A),f(B)), then f^(1)(Y) is
a point on Line(A,B). How do you show
that if X is a point on Line(A,B), then
f(X) is a point on Line(f(A),f(B))?

Posted by Bractals
on 20061215 18:15:42 