(In reply to
First part of solution by Tristan)
Hi Tristan. Glad to see you back.
I liked your proof, but don't think you need the lemma.
The Pythagorean theorem gives the third side.
You have probably seen the proof of the SteinerLehmus theorem using the above theorem. Since your proof of this theorem is direct and geometric it would seem that the proof of the SteinerLehmus theorem is also direct and geometric. But, John Conway does not think one exists. What do you think?
Edited on October 5, 2013, 5:03 pm

Posted by Bractals
on 20131004 05:38:06 