(In reply to
re: Counterintuitive by Old Original Oskar!)
That's not true. One of the basic properties of limits is that the limit of a sum (or difference) of some component functions is the sum (or difference) of the limits of the individual functions. In this case, we can look at the individual functions as (1/n+1), (1/n+2), and so on.
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Posted by Eric
on 2004-08-19 15:00:17 |