It is true that the theorem states that the sum of the limits is equal to the limit of the sums. BUT! The theorem does not state that it can be readily extended to the case of an infinite number of functions.
The proof, using the general definition of limits, only proves it for two limits. It's true that it can be readily extended to any finite number of functions. But this example shows that it cannot be extended to an infinite number of functions.
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Posted by np_rt
on 2004-08-19 15:25:22 |