The Fibonacci sequence goes F(0)=0, F(1)=1, and for n>1, F(n)=F(n-1)+F(n-2).

Show that for every positive integer m there exists an integer n>0 such that m divides F(n).

(In reply to Clueless by Steve Herman)

Mathematical induction. "If it is true for m, then it is true for m+1"

That is probably the way this will be solved.

Posted by Penny on 2005-06-11 14:18:08