The Fibonacci sequence goes F(0)=0, F(1)=1, and for n>1, F(n)=F(n-1)+F(n-2).

Show that for every positive integer m there exists an integer n>0 such that m divides F(n).

(In reply to re(3): Proof--Quick fix by Tristan)

I'm convinced of the proof, as fixed.  Nice work, Tristan

Posted by Steve Herman on 2005-06-12 23:38:56