Let f be a one-to-one correspondence of the points in a plane. Prove or disprove the following statement:

"If f maps circles to circles, then it maps straight lines to straight lines."

(In reply to re(6): Full Proof by Joel)

No offense taken. 

I just find it a little hard to imagine anyone finding all this symbolic language easier to understand than how I wrote it.  Crazy mathematicians!


Actually, I'm being facetious.  I can read your proof just fine.

Posted by Tristan on 2006-12-19 20:18:21