(In reply to
Avoiding 98 mods (solution) by Steve Herman)
I thought it had to do with Wilson's Theorem, but the math and symbology in the pages I found on it were over my head. :)
Maybe you could explain, what does it mean to say 1 (mod 101), and further to say 2*51=3*34...=1 (mod 101)?
Oh, I get it, they are all the mod operation is 1 if n is prime and the divisor. So since 101 is prime, n-2=99, and so 99! mod 101=1.
So from there, you could find out what 100! mod 101 is brilliant.
Combining our posts, you get:
98! MOD 101
= (100!/(99*100)) MOD 101
= ((99!*100)/(99*100)) MOD 101
and used the distributive property of MOD:
=((99! MOD 101)*(100 MOD 101))/((99*100) MOD 101)) MOD 101
and reduced using Wilson's Theorem that ((n-2)! mod n) = 1 (providing n is prime):
=((1*100)/(9900 MOD 101)) MOD 101
reducing by performing the second mod:
=(100/2) MOD 101
dividing:
=50 MOD 101
and the final mod (for a count of three or four if you count 100 mod 101 :) )!
=50
Edited on September 3, 2011, 4:59 am
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Posted by Joshua
on 2011-09-02 22:19:17 |