All about flooble | fun stuff | Get a free chatterbox | Free JavaScript | Avatars    
perplexus dot info

Home > Just Math > Calculus
Derivative (Integral) = Integral (Derivative)? (Posted on 2012-10-24) Difficulty: 1 of 5
Is d/dx (∫ f(x) dx) equal to ∫ d/dx (f(x)) dx ?

Give reasons for your answer.

No Solution Yet Submitted by K Sengupta    
Rating: 2.5000 (2 votes)

Comments: ( Back to comment list | You must be logged in to post comments.)
Solution No joke, but a new reason Comment 3 of 3 |
Consider the Dirichlet function: f(x) = 0 if x is rational, 1 otherwise

This function has no derivatives, so integral(derivative) does not exist.

However, I believe its Lebesque integral is x (plus a constant).  The derivative of its integral = 1, which is not the same as f(x).

So, f(x), the derivative of the integral and the integral of the derivative can all be different.

Of course, this problem is only difficulty = 1, so I expect that this is not the expected answer.

  Posted by Steve Herman on 2012-10-25 02:30:39
Please log in:
Login:
Password:
Remember me:
Sign up! | Forgot password


Search:
Search body:
Forums (0)
Newest Problems
Random Problem
FAQ | About This Site
Site Statistics
New Comments (0)
Unsolved Problems
Top Rated Problems
This month's top
Most Commented On

Chatterbox:
Copyright © 2002 - 2024 by Animus Pactum Consulting. All rights reserved. Privacy Information