Let n be an integer, and let (Ln) signify the nth Lucas Number.
((Ln)2+(Ln+1)2)2 - 5((L2n+2)*(L2n)-1) = 0
Prove it!
(In reply to
Long solution. by Jer)
Excellent!
If you don't mind, please consider this line:
(L2n)2-3L2n*L2n+2+(L2n+2)2 + 5 = 0
and the generalised substitution a^2-3ab+b^2 = -5.
Are they not fully equivalent?
If so, are the remaining lines strictly necessary? I'd be grateful to hear your views, as I by no means claim to be an expert in matters of proof.
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Posted by broll
on 2013-12-16 14:06:09 |