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Binomial dilemma (Posted on 2019-02-02) Difficulty: 3 of 5
Let n≥2 be a positive integer and let f(x) be the polynomial

1 - (x + x2 + ... + xn) + (x + x2 + ... + xn)2 - ... + (-1)n(x + x2 + ... + xn)n.

Show that the coefficient of xr in f(x) is zero, for 2≤r≤n.

No Solution Yet Submitted by Danish Ahmed Khan    
Rating: 3.0000 (1 votes)

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Solution No Subject Comment 1 of 1
Let C(m,r) be the coefficient of x^r  in d(m) = (x + x^2 + .. + x^n)^m. Then C(m,r) is 0 whenever m>r.
Using recursion relations or induction, we come up for an expression for C(m,r) when n>=m>=r

C(m,r) = (r-1)!/(m-1)!(r-m)! 

So, the coefficient of x^r in (Sum over m) d(m) is given by 

S(r) = (Sum of m from 1 to r) (-1)^m (r-1)!/(m-1)!(r-m)!

Now, look at the binomial expansion of G(y) = (1-y)^(r-1). This is given by

G(y) = (Sum of m from 1 to k) (-1)^m y^m (r-1)!/(m-1)!(r-m)!

Hence 0 = G(1) = S(r)

Edited on February 4, 2019, 9:31 am
  Posted by FrankM on 2019-02-04 07:04:44

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