Consider a binary operation # that is closed under the set of integers (if a and b are integers, then a#b is an integer).

Assume that, for all integers a and b, it is true that (a#b)#a=b.

Prove that a#(b#a)=b.

(In reply to full solution by SilverKnight)

i'm probably wrong, but this is basically the commutative property

Posted by iggyb387 on 2003-10-17 20:55:06