What is the probability of two randomly chosen integers being coprime?
Bonus(d4): How does the result relate fo the density
of square-free numbers?
(In reply to re: computer approximation (vs researched solution)
Interesting that the indicated solution, pi^2/6, is the inverse of the infinite sum 1/n^2 - the Basel problem, first proved by the incomparable master, Leonhard Euler.
Is there any deep significance in this?
In Euler's absence, any ideas, dear Perplexi?