Prove that the value of [M!/((M+1)(M+2))] is always even, for any given positive integer M, where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x.
** For purposes of the problem, treat zero as an even number.
(In reply to just for the record
by Ady TZIDON)
I think the issue with zero being even is similar to the issue of zero being a natural number/ not being a natural number. From my own experience, it's worth mentioning zero is to be treated as an even number in case anyone wasn't sure.
Posted by Gamer
on 2011-02-05 20:01:17